Are you guys serious about this? Unless the conveyer belt is moving the air over the runway, the plane thrust will move it relative to the AIR, and not relative to the runway surface. It is impossible for the conveyor belt to offset the forward motion through the AIR by increasing the rotation speed of the wheels. The only backward force that would create is the minimal resistance friction in the wheel bearings, or if the pilot applies the brakes. The conveyor belt becomes irrelevant as soon as the prop or jet thrust begins moving the plane through the air over the runway. The only way it could be relevant is if the conveyor generated its own wind by friction, causing a headwind for the plane - and in that case you are talking about a wind tunnel type situation. Think of it as a momentum problem. Ordinarilly, the plane engine is just overcoming inertia and wind resistance and wheel bearing friction to get a plane moving forward. If the plane is on a conveyor belt that is trying to move it backward, it also has to overcome inertia and wind resistance and wheel bearing friction to move it backward. And unless the brakes are set the plane will not move at the same speed as the conveyor initially because inertia and wind resistance exceeds wheel bearing friction. The wheels transfer very little force from the plane to the conveyor or from the conveyer to the plane, based entirely on the effectiveness of the bearings. So, when the engine is turning the prop at max RPM, where is all the force going? A very little bit is lost if the conveyor is turning the wheels at high speed. The rest MUST overcome inertia and wind resistance and accelerate the plane forward - regardless of the wheel RPM. The conveyor belt can't apply force to the plane in excess of the wheel bearing resistance. The engine and prop (or jet thrust) can.