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I copied the following describing the psychosis section of the Guide for Aviation Medical Examiners from this site: http://www.leftseat.com/ame993.htm
My son had a reaction, likely an allergic reaction I am told, from a prescribed drug and was hospitalized. He had some mild hallucinations and delusions. The initial diagnosis used by the physicians to treat his symptoms was "phychosis, N.O.S." meaning "psychosis, not otherwise specified."
Since being released from the hospital he has been fine.
I am concerned about the diagnosis itself. My work deals with diagnoses and CPT codes and I know from experience that in order to get paid docs need to have a diagnosis and associated codes. His nurses told me that the diagnosis was entered on his chart because while they had no "psychosis" in and of itself, the drug-induced delusions and hallucinations created a scenario like a psychosis for them to treat.
Has he established a forever-disqualifying diagnosis?
If so, any advice?
I. CODE OF FEDERAL REGULATIONS
All Classes: 14 CFR 67.107, 67.207, and 67.307
***No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of the following:
A personality disorder that is severe enough to have repeatedly manifested itself by overt acts.
A psychosis. As used in this section, "psychosis" refers to a mental disorder in which:
The individual has manifested delusions, hallucinations, grossly bizarre or disorganized behavior, or other commonly accepted symptoms of this condition
My son had a reaction, likely an allergic reaction I am told, from a prescribed drug and was hospitalized. He had some mild hallucinations and delusions. The initial diagnosis used by the physicians to treat his symptoms was "phychosis, N.O.S." meaning "psychosis, not otherwise specified."
Since being released from the hospital he has been fine.
I am concerned about the diagnosis itself. My work deals with diagnoses and CPT codes and I know from experience that in order to get paid docs need to have a diagnosis and associated codes. His nurses told me that the diagnosis was entered on his chart because while they had no "psychosis" in and of itself, the drug-induced delusions and hallucinations created a scenario like a psychosis for them to treat.
Has he established a forever-disqualifying diagnosis?
If so, any advice?