First, I realize this is a question for a tax attorney if the rubber were really going to hit the runway on something like this. I'm not looking for legal advice. I just thought this might be a fun exercise to post up here to see if anyone else has ever thought of (or tried) this, or heard of someone who did, and had any juicy stories.
Let's say that hypothetically, two non-spouse relatives who reside in Florida - we'll call them JimBob and Cleetus - are thinking that it would be cool to have a plane around. JimBob finds the perfect plane for sale that checks all the boxes. This plane, conveniently, is registered in Delaware and physically located within a < 1-hour flight from Delaware. JimBob and Cleetus trust each other implicitly and have shared big-ticket items together before with only one person's name on the title/registration. Call it an informal way to pool resources to have more toys.
JimBob goes up to buy the plane. The deal is consummated in Delaware, so no sales tax. An 8050-2 is completed and filed, with JimBob listed as the proud new owner. The next day, and before flying the plane physically into Florida, JimBob comes to his senses. He decides Cleetus is probably going to fly way more than he is, and therefore, for liability purposes, he would he would rather have Cleetus' name be on the registration instead of his own. He gifts the plane to Cleetus on a new 8050-2. Since the 8050-2 requires a purchase price, $1 is listed. The plane is flown into Florida, Cleetus files all requisite paperwork with the state that the plane was received as a gift, and pays his $0.06 use tax (6% of $1). JimBob files a Form 709 (gift tax return) with the IRS on his 2024 federal tax return and claims the purchase price against his lifetime gift tax exclusion.
Okay, go. Lol. Are JimBob and Cleetus hardened white collar criminals, deadbeats who hate the United States and their home state? Or by virtue of one of them taking the risk of not being a legal owner, did they just happen to exploit a legal loophole? Is this essentially transferring what would have been a state tax burden (use tax) into a federal tax burden (gift tax) and then applying the advantageous rules that apply there?
Let's say that hypothetically, two non-spouse relatives who reside in Florida - we'll call them JimBob and Cleetus - are thinking that it would be cool to have a plane around. JimBob finds the perfect plane for sale that checks all the boxes. This plane, conveniently, is registered in Delaware and physically located within a < 1-hour flight from Delaware. JimBob and Cleetus trust each other implicitly and have shared big-ticket items together before with only one person's name on the title/registration. Call it an informal way to pool resources to have more toys.
JimBob goes up to buy the plane. The deal is consummated in Delaware, so no sales tax. An 8050-2 is completed and filed, with JimBob listed as the proud new owner. The next day, and before flying the plane physically into Florida, JimBob comes to his senses. He decides Cleetus is probably going to fly way more than he is, and therefore, for liability purposes, he would he would rather have Cleetus' name be on the registration instead of his own. He gifts the plane to Cleetus on a new 8050-2. Since the 8050-2 requires a purchase price, $1 is listed. The plane is flown into Florida, Cleetus files all requisite paperwork with the state that the plane was received as a gift, and pays his $0.06 use tax (6% of $1). JimBob files a Form 709 (gift tax return) with the IRS on his 2024 federal tax return and claims the purchase price against his lifetime gift tax exclusion.
Okay, go. Lol. Are JimBob and Cleetus hardened white collar criminals, deadbeats who hate the United States and their home state? Or by virtue of one of them taking the risk of not being a legal owner, did they just happen to exploit a legal loophole? Is this essentially transferring what would have been a state tax burden (use tax) into a federal tax burden (gift tax) and then applying the advantageous rules that apply there?